Twenty-four hours post–vaginal delivery, a postpartum client tells a nurse that she is concerned because she has not had a bowel movement since before delivery. In response to this information, the nurse should intervene by doing which of the following?
ExplanationBecause of decreased muscle tone in the intestines during labor and the immediate postpartum period, possible prelabor diarrhea, de- creased food intake during labor, and dehydration during labor, a spontaneous bowel evacuation may not occur for 2 to 3 days after childbirth. Thus, the only action required by the nurse is to document the lack of a bowel movement in the client’s records. There is no need to notify the health-care practitioner or to administer a laxative. Bowel sounds are not altered by a vaginal delivery, even though the passage of stool through the intestines is slowed.