A 65-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his wife because of new-onset fever and confusion. He was well until 3 days ago, when he developed high fever, somnolence, and progressive confusion. His current medical history is unremarkable except for elevated cholesterol, and his only medication is atorvastatin. He is a civil engineer at an international construction company. His wife reports he obtains regular health screening and has always been PPD negative. On admission, his temperature is 40°C, and his vital signs are otherwise normal. He is confused and hallucinating. Soon after admission, he develops a tonic-clonic seizure that requires lorazepam to terminate. His head CT shows no acute bleeding or elevated intracranial pressure. An electroencephalogram shows an epileptiform focus in the left temporal lobe and difusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows bilateral temporal lobe infammation. Which of the following is most likely to be diagnostic?