MEDizzy
MEDizzy
USMLE
Cardiology
A 30-year-old female presents with a chief complaint of palpitations. A 24-hour Holter monitor shows occasional unifocal premature ventricular contractions and premature atrial contractions. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?
Explanation
ExplanationMinimally symptomatic PVCs in the absence of structural heart disease are benign and do not require treatment. Antiarrhythmic therapy in this setting has not been shown to reduce sudden cardiac death or overall mortality. A beta-blocker would be the best choice if symptoms begin to interfere with daily activities. Digoxin is not useful in this setting. Type 1 antiarrhythmics (such as quinidine) carry significant risks including an increased incidence of ventricular tachycardia.
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